Did Immanuel Kant draw more upon idealist modern philosophers or empiricist philosophers?
Was he more of an idealist or empiricist? I can’t quite understand this because he seems to have a little bit of both in his philosophy.
Tags: draw, empiricist, idealist, Immanuel, Kant, Modern, more, Philosophers, upon
April 18th, 2010 at 10:24 pm
He is usually classified as a rationalist rather than an empiricist since empiricists give no role to a priori knowledge. But that is not quite the same issue you are asking. The truth is that much of the brilliance of Kant was his ability to synthesize the idealist and empirical philosophies. that’s why his metaphysics features both an empirical phenomenal world and an idealist noumenal world. But most of his attention is on the phenomenal world since that’s the one we can experience and actually know things about.
Hope this helps!
April 18th, 2010 at 10:44 pm
This part, about “perceiving,” makes him a Rationalist:
“…his argument amounted to a negation, not only of man’s consciousness, but of any consciousness, of consciousness as such. His argument, in essence, ran as follows: man is limited to a consciousness of a specific nature, which perceives by specific means and no others, therefore, his consciousness is not valid…
“For the New Intellectual,” For the New Intellectual, 30.
But his stated purpose was to try to bridge the gap between those Empiricism and Rationalism, not something called ‘idealism.”
“[Philosophers came to be divided] into two camps: those who claimed that man obtains his knowledge of the world by deducing it exclusively from concepts, which come from inside his head and are not derived from the perception of physical facts (the Rationalists)—and those who claimed that man obtains his knowledge from experience, which was held to mean: by direct perception of immediate facts, with no recourse to concepts (the Empiricists). To put it more simply: those who joined the [mystics] by abandoning reality—and those who clung to reality, by abandoning their mind.”
“For the New Intellectual,” For the New Intellectual, 30.
“The implicit, but unadmitted premise [ ] is the notion that only an ineffable consciousness can acquire a valid knowledge of reality, that “true” knowledge has to be causeless, i.e., acquired without any means of cognition.
“The entire apparatus of Kant’s system, [rests] on a single point: that man’s knowledge is not valid because his consciousness possesses identity …”
Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology, 106
How can a man be Empiricist, however, when his entire premise is that phenomena are not real? Noumena are real, he says. A Rationalist says we can learn little about the real world through sensory experience because our senses are limited, but at least they say our minds can make sense of the world through our limitations.
Kant says we can’t even make “real” sense, we just have to hope that what we think we know turns out to be right.
“There are two different kinds of subjectivism, distinguished by their answers to the question: whose consciousness creates reality? Kant rejected the older of these two, which was the view that each man’s feelings create a private universe for him. Instead, Kant ushered in the era of social subjectivism—the view that it is not the consciousness of individuals, but of groups, that creates reality. In Kant’s system, mankind as a whole is the decisive group; what creates the phenomenal world is not the idiosyncrasies of particular individuals, but the mental structure common to all men.
Later philosophers accepted Kant’s fundamental approach, but carried it a step further. If, many claimed, the mind’s structure is a brute given, which cannot be explained—as Kant had said—then there is no reason why all men should have the same mental structure. There is no reason why mankind should not be splintered into competing groups, each defined by its own distinctive type of consciousness, each vying with the others to capture and control reality.
The first world movement thus to pluralize the Kantian position was Marxism, which propounded a social subjectivism in terms of competing economic classes. On this issue, as on many others, the Nazis follow the Marxists, but substitute race for class.”
Leonard Peikoff, The Ominous Parallels, 63.
April 18th, 2010 at 10:44 pm
Before I answer this question, I ought to address the terminology, because you’re using the labels in a way I find confusing, and Kant can be confusing enough without you helping out in that department!
There is an important opposition in metaphysics between “idealism” one the one hand and “realism” on the other. Also sometimes known as “monism” versus “dualism,” for a reason that will soon become obvious.
The best quick way to state this is: an idealist thinks this keyboard I’m looking at right now is identical to my idea of the keyboard. The realist on the other hand, thinks the keyboard itself is a material fact outside of my skull, my idea of it is another sort of fact inside of my skull, so the two can’t be the same thing.
Think of dreams to get a fix on the difference. If I’m dreaming right now, then it is fairly plausible to say that this keyboard is my idea of it — since outside of my skull there will be a pillow and some blankets but probably no keyboard. Although idealists don’t precisely believe that all of life is a dream, it is certainly more dream-like in their telling than it is in the telling of most realists.
Now, the realist/idealist dichotomy is one dispute. It’s a matter of metaphysics. The rationalist/empiricist dichotomy is another thing. Its a matter of epistemology — the philosopical study of knowledge, its components and conditions.
The history of philosophy has rationalist realists (like Leibniz). It also has rationalist idealists (like Josiah Royce)., It has empiricist idealists (like George Berkeley). And it also has some fillers for the one remaining square in this grid, the empiricist realists (John Locke).
NOW we can ask where Immanuel Kant stands. And the best short answer is that he was clearly on the rationalist side of the epistemological split, but that he position was ambiguous on the metaphysical split.
The great American philosopher William James, by the way, was clearly on the empiricist side of the epistemological split, but held to a position that was ambiguous on the metaphysical split.
But you asked about Kant. He was a rationalist whose rationalism led him to a view of metaphysics that was in part realist and in part idealism.
Most of what we know about life is a dream, though we can also reasonably postulate what we can not prove — a non-dream element.
I’ve linked to a wiki article below that doesn’t directly address Kant at all, but that does discuss some of the terminological issues.
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