Since early man’s physiology and modern day man’s physiology are nearly the same, is history the difference?
Wednesday, January 11th, 2012Question by Jung Prada G: Since early man’s physiology and modern day man’s physiology are nearly the same, is history the difference?
Early man had less history to live off of; modern day school children learn more in one day of class than that which is learned in early man’s life time.
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(skip these details if it is confusing)
…I know psychologist/philosopher Steve Pinker argued AGAINST it in lay terms in “The Blank State” positing that genetics attribute to the change and adaptation of behavior (which I plan on reading soon); it’s just that, is it true that history (or experience–MTheory is the bomb, he answered a similar question with most of this insight–) trumps the belief of a blank state, all the way down to the genetic level?
*’does’ having history make the difference between early man (and the lack of recorded/communicated history between the evolution of apes to man) and modern man (in that we have an accumulation of recorded history today more than anyone else in the past have ever had)
Best answer:
Answer by M T
Exactly what you are asking is unclear.
Just from your short summary it has to be some of both and not exclusively one or the other.
What do you think? Answer below!

